CCNA   -- Tech Note  

CCNA Example TEXT Questions  with ANSWERS      pass mark = 70%        updated April 2014                                  KCC


example questions without answers    ccna study guide


1 Which statement is true regarding switches and hubs
A  hubs filter frame
B  switches increase the number of collision domains
C  switches reduce the number of collision domains
D  hubs increase the number of collision domains
E  switches increase the number of broadcast domains
2 Cisco access list lines are processed in the order in which they were configured
A  TRUE
B  FALSE
3 Multicasts are forwarded by transparent bridges
A  TRUE
B  FALSE
4 Which of the following IOS commands save the current running configuration to NVRAM
A  write memory
B  copy running-config startup-config
C  copy startup-config running-config
D  copy running-config ftp
5 Which of the following IOS commands assigns a domain name to a router
A  ip domain name
B  ip domain-name
C  ip name
D  domain-name
6 Which command allows EIGRP to load balance over unequal paths
A  maximum-path
B  ip eigrp load-balance
C  variance
D  ip eigrp variance
E  none of the above
7 What are true features of CDP
A  to show the IP address of a connected device
B  to obtain VLAN information from the connected device
C  to show the hostname and equipment type on a connection
D  for automatic network failover
E  to verify layer-2 connectivity
8 What is/are the IEEE standard for spanning tree protocol
A  802.1d
B  802.1q
C  802.10
D  802.1w
E  802.3u
9 Which of the following are designed for Frame Relay congestion notification
A  LMI
B  ILMI
C  BECN
D  UNI
E  FECN
10 Which access list will deny DNS
A  access-list 88 deny ip any any 55
B  access-list 99 deny tcp any any eq 53
C  access-list 102 deny tcp any any eq 53
D  access-list 103 deny udp any any eq 53
E  access-list 103 deny ip any host eq 21
11 Where is the router running configuration stored
A  NVRAM
B  RAM
C  FLASH
D  ROM
12 When applied to an interface an access list defaults to _________ if no direction is specified
A  inbound
B  outbound
C  disabled
13 Which of the following protocols are not routable
A  NetBEUI
B  SNA
C  IP
D  IPX
E  LAT
F  Appletalk
14 Cisco routers use a standard version of HDLC on the serial interfaces
A  TRUE
B  FALSE
15 Which layer of the OSI model does logical route path selection belong to
A  Layer 2  (Data)
B  Layer 3 (Network)
C  Layer 4 (Transport)
D  Layer 5 (Session)
16 What layer of the OSI model do WAN technologies operate
A  Layer 2
B  Layer 5
C  Layer 1
D  Layer 6
E  Layer 3
F  Layer 4
17 Ports/Interfaces on a switch will default to what VLAN
A  VLAN 1
B  no VLAN
C  disabled
18    The  _____________   hold a 16 bit value that is used to decide how the router will boot
A  command-register
B  config-register
C  startup-register
D  boot-register
18 What is the range of  class C addressing
A  128.1.0.0  to  191.255.255.255
B  192.0.0.0  to  223.255.255.0
C  192.255.255.255  to  224.0.0.0
D  172.0.0.0  to  223.0.0.0
19 Which protocol uses TCP/IP port 443
A  HTML
B  FTP
C  SSH
D  SMTP
E  HTTPS
F  HTTP
20 CDP packets are sent to neighbors every
A  30 seconds
B  60 seconds
C  90 seconds
D  5 minutes
21 The mask of 255.255.255.248 is the same as the binary
A  11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000
B  11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000
C  11111111.11111111.11111111.11100001
D  11111111.11111111.11111111.11111100
22 Which are used for flow control
A  Cut-Through
B  Windowing
C  Fast Switching
D  Store and Foreward
D  Congestion control
23 The network mask of  255.255.252.0  can be displayed as
A  11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
B  /24
C  /26
D  /22
E  /23
24 TCP uses which of the following for reliability
A  Segmentation
B  Flow Control
C  Acknowledgements
D  Sequencing 
25 What IOS command assigns an access list to VTY interfaces
A  access-list
B  access-class
C  access-group
D  access-enable
26 At default, the syslog messages are sent to
A  syslog server
B  console port
C  auxilary port
D  terminal
E  VTY interfaces
27 A route is learned by a site router from several sources. Which route is the preferred source
A  RIPv2
B  EIGRP
C  OSPF
D  default route
28 What layer of the OSI model does CDP operate 
A  Layer 2 (Data)
B  Layer 3 (Network)
C  Layer 4 (transport)
D  Layer 5 (Session)
29 What switching mode/method provides checking of the FCS in the Ethernet trailer
A  Cut Through
B  Store and Forward
C  Fragment Free
D  none of the above
30 What command could be used to verify the cabling and clocking on a serial link
A  show interface serial0/0
B  show controller serial1/0
C  show interface ethernet3/0
D  show interface trunk
E  show mars-bar
31 What is the IOS command to copy a new IOS into flash
A  copy net flash
B  copy tftp flash
C  copy nvram flash
D  copy flash filename
32 The 2 byte Frame Relay protocol type-frame has an RFC standard of
A  1700
B  793
C  1490
D  0349
E  1749
33 What commpression type is supported on a VIP or compression service adapter
A  MPPC
B  STAC
C  FRF.9
D  Predictor
E  none of the above
34 How many valid host addresses can be allocated with a mask of  255.255.255.248
A  2
B  4
C  8
D  6
E  7
35 Which command will allow you to determine the router within the path of
an unreachable host
A  ping
B  show ip interface brief
C  show ip route
D  trace
E  telnet
36 What is the valid access-list number range for an extended ip access list
A  0 - 99
B  100 - 199
C  99 - 200
D  99 - 199
E  200 - 299
37 What congestion notification mechanism would notify the sending station that congestion exists
A  FECN
B  LMI
C  BECN
D  ILMI
E  DLCI
38 VTP configuration messages are flooded through the network every
A  60 seconds
B  180 seconds
C  240 seconds
D  5 minutes
E  only when a change is detected
39 Which of the following switches would be elected as the default root 
for VLAN1 (assume all switches fully meshed)  
A  none
B  SW1  priority 32768   mac 0003.e334.d9c0
C  SW2  priority 42326   mac 0003.e334.d640
D  SW3  priority 42326   mac 0003.e334.d650
E  SW4  priority 32768   mac 0003.e334.e770
40 Which field is found in IEEE Ethernet and not in Ethernet version 2
A  type
B  length
C  acknowledge
41 What value is the TTL field in an IP packet to causes a discard
A  255
B  64
C  0
D  1
42 What is the problem with the following configuration extracts

router1#
interface serial0/0
ip address 10.10.1.1 255.255.255.252
clock rate 4000000

router2#
interface serial0/1
ip address 10.10.2.2 255.255.255.252

A  incorrect interface - matach
B  incorrect cabling
C  wrong clock speed
D  missing clock statement on router#2
E  incorrect ip address - match 

43 What OSI model layer does NetBIOS belong
A  Layer 2 (Data)
B  Layer 3 (Network)
C  Layer 4 (Transport)
D  Layer 5 (Session)
E  Layer 6 (Presentation)
44 What is the permitted value range for a DLCI
A  0 - 1024
B  0 - 1023
C  1 - 64
D  5 - 1024
E  1 - 128
45 What feature in PPP is used to check for a looped circuit
A  LQM
B  Magic Numbers
C  PAP
D  CHAP
46 What version of the Cisco IOS first supported LMI autosense
A  10.9
B  11.0
C  11.2
D  11.8
E  12.0
47 What is the default for split horizon on a serial interface not configured for point to point
A  enabled
B  disabled
48 What is the update interval for IGRP
A  90 seconds
B  60 seconds
C  30 seconds
D  5 seconds
49 What is the default encapsulation for a Cisco 2800 serial interface
A  PPP
B  HDLC
C  Frame-Relay
D  none
50 Which lines of configuration will correct the following problem. 
The following message is recieved when telneting into a 1800 router

     Password required, but none set
     Connection to host lost.
A  line con 0,     login
B  line con 0,     login,   password cisco
C  line vty 0 4,   login,   password cisco
D  line vty,       login,   enable password cisco
E  password cisco
F  enable password cisco
51 What protocol is used to find a station's mac address, given the stations IP address
A  IARP
B  RARP
C  ARP
D  LMI
52 What type of access list would permit more than 99 standard access list to be created
A  protected
B  advanced
C  named
D  none of the above
53 Which of the following is not true
A  A VTP server without a configured domain name will accept the domain name from a VTP 
advertisement
B  A VTP client can create, modify and delete VTP messages
C  In VTP transparent mode, a switch can modify its own VLAN configuration
D  VTP messages are flooded through the network every 5 minutes
54 What information can not be supplied by  CDP
A  neighbor memory
B  neighbor platform
C  neighbor address
D  neighbor identifier
55 Given the station address and mask  165.140.21.17/22, what is the broadcast address
A  165.140.21.255
B  165.140.23.255
C  165.140.20.255
D  165.140.24.255
56 Which of the following routing protocols support VLSM
A  OSPF
B  IGRP
C  RIP version 1
D  RIP version 2
E  EIGRP
57 What command on a Catalyst switch would display the mac address of the root bridge for VLAN 
623
A  show bridge 623
B  show span
C  show spanning-tree vlan 623
D  show span 623
58 What is the default administration distance value for EIGRP
A  60
B  90
C  120
D  140
59 Which router command assigns ethernet sub-interface to VLAN 7 using ISL 
A  set vlan 7 ethernet 
B  encapsulation isl 7
C  enable isl 7
D  ethernet enable isl 7
60 Which are advantages of using default routes
A  keep routing tables small
B  need large cpu resource
C  allow connectivity to routes not held in local routing tables
D  automatically establich routes
E  direct traffic from the Internet
61 Which of the following do not share the same subnet as device 165.140.220.6 255.255.192.0
A  165.140.248.17/18
B  165.140.252.12/18
C  165.140.199.44/18
D  165.140.166.22/18
E  165.140.190.120/18
62 What is the command to enable EIGRP on a router
A  enable ip eigrp
B  router eigrp
C  enable eigrp routing
D  set ip eigrp
63 When two switches in the same VTP domain (both set in server mode) have different VLAN 
configurations
A  spanning tree blocks the conflicting links
B  both switches disable any conflicting port configurations
C  the VTP server with the highest value configuration register overwrites the other switch 
configuration
D  none of the above
64 What is the function of VLAN pruning
A  to synchronise VTP messages
B  to minimise traffic on trunks by removing traffic destined for VLANs that have been long 
inactive on the destination switches
C  to minimise traffic on trunks by removing traffic destined for VLANs that are not configured on 
the destination switches 
D  none of the above
65 What is the default equal-cost paths that IGRP will load balance over
A  2
B  3
C  4
D  5
66    When displaying routes from a  show ip route   command,  what character is used to show that the 
route came from an EIGRP routing update
A  R
B  I
C  E
D  D
66 A unicast frame received by a switch with a destination address that is not in the switch's address 
table, will be
A  flooded out of every port
B  flooded out of every port except the port on which it was received
C  dropped
D  sent back to sender as unreachable
67 Which method of tagging extends the ethernet frame
A  ISL
B  802.1w
C  802.1s
D  802.1q
68 Which ICMP message does the  trace  command rely on
A  protocol unreachable
B  echo
C  destination unreachable
D  time exceeded
E  host unreachable
69 How many connecting pins are defined by the ITU V.35 specification
A  35
B  25
C  34
D  28
E  18
70 When a gateway becomes congested it sends a ______  to let the sending station know to slow 
down
A  destination unreachable
B  source quench
C  redirect
D  none of the above
71 What is the default metric for RIP version 2
	A  hops
	B  ticks
	C  delay
	D  MTU
	E  bandwidth
72 What is the max size of a default Ethernet data frame
	A  1500 bits
	B  48 Bytes
	C  80 Bytes
	D  1500 Bytes
73 What is the value of the DSAP/SSAP to indicate SNAP protocol
	A  0
	B  FF
	C  AA
	D  08
	E  0E
74 Given a station address and mask of  134.26.17.11/23, what is the network and broadcast addresses
A  134.26.17.0
B  134.26.17.255
C  134.26.16.0
D  134.26.16.255
E  134.26.0.0
75 What layer of the OSI model does SNMP belog to
A  Layer 2 (Data)
B  Layer 3 (Network)
C  Layer 5 (Session)
D  Layer 7 (Application)
76 Which of the following are assigned in RFC 1918 as private IP addresses
A  10.0.1.2
B  172.17.23.2
C  192.168.23.2
D  127.0.0.1
E  165.140.20.5
77 The NAT inside-global address is defined as
A  address of host in the private network, normally using a private address
B  Internet address of host viewed from outside a private network
C  Internet address of global host attached to the Internet
D  none of the above
78 Which of the following are FTP commands
A  put
B  mget
C  write
D  save
E  get
79 Telnet to a Cisco router that has no password configured is
A  not possible, connection is rejected
B  a security risk
C  possible, but only in Switzerland
d  possible only in monitor mode
80 A transparent bridge 
A  operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model
B  operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model
C  forwards all multicast frames
D  allows frame/packet fragmentation
E  connects different protocol segments together
81 CSMA/CD first step in transmitting data is
A  send a jam signal to free the link
B  wait a random time
C  listen to detect frames
D  send the frame
82 Which authentication method supports MD5 encryption
A  PAP
B  CHAP
C  enhanced PAP
D  none of the above
83 Which of the following is untrue regarding full-duplex ethernet
A  collisions do not occur
B  provides for only two stations  to be directly connected
C  available bandwidth is double that of half-duplex
D  half-duplex devices can not be connected to full-duplex devices
84 Which spanning tree timer must expire before determining the topology has changed
A  forward delay
B  max age
C  hello
D  none of the above
85 Which of the following statements are untrue regarding CIDR
A  allows ISP to carry one default route to all destinations
B  allows ISP to reduce the routes carried in the routing tables
C  treats IP addresses as classless 
D  makes use of address aggregation 

86 Which of the following are TRUE regarding router on a stick routing between VLANS
A  a router on a stick topology must use sub-interfaces and trunking
B  traffic sent to each VLAN is tagged at layer-3
C  traffic sent to each VLAN is tagged at layer-2
D  static routing could be used to route between the VLANs
E  an IGP must be used by the router for dynamic routing

87 Which of the following are TRUE regarding distance vector routing protocols
A  they use split horizon for loop prevention
B  they send LSA to all their neighbours
C  they use a holddown timer when links go down
D  they use hop-count to determine best routes
E  they use bandwidth and delay to determine best routes

88 Given the network - two VLANs on a switch connected to a router on a stick with the router connected to an ISP for Internet use.
Which of these statements are TRUE
A  the router could use a static route and NAT to connect to the ISP
B  the router will need sub-interfaces to route to the VLANs
C  the switch will need EtherChannel, trunking and PAGP
D  the switch will need trunking and VTP 
E  the router will use an IGP such as OSPF to route between the VLANs and the ISP

89 A small three router network is using OSPF to route between the six company networks - two networks on each router.  
All routers are connected to a single FastEthernet backbone.  Which statements are TRUE
A  If the DR fails, but the BDR will become the new DR and the other router will become the BDR only after a reload
B  The routers will all send OSPF hello's every 10 seconds to all other routers
C  The routers will send OSPF hello's every 10 seconds to the DR and BDR routers only
D  The routers will all send OSPF hello's every 5 seconds to all other routers and LSA updates to DR and BDRs
E  All the routers will have the same link state database
F  A static route with AD value 100 will be used rather than an OSPF route for the same network

90 Which of the following are TRUE regarding spanning tree protocol
A  Several switches can be deployed using RSTP and STP in the same networks
B  IEEE 802.1w has states forwarding, blocking, learning
C  IEEE 802.1D has states listening learning, forwarding, blocking
D  RSTP FastEthernet switch port connected to another RSTP GigabitEthernet switchport will have port cost 4
E  STP FastEthernet switch port connected to another STP GigabitEthernet switchport will have cost 19

 

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