CCNA Example TEXT Questions with ANSWERS pass mark = 70% updated April 2014 KCC
example questions without answers ccna study guide
1 Which statement is true regarding switches and hubs A hubs filter frame B switches increase the number of collision domains C switches reduce the number of collision domains D hubs increase the number of collision domains E switches increase the number of broadcast domains
2 Cisco access list lines are processed in the order in which they were configured A TRUE B FALSE
3 Multicasts are forwarded by transparent bridges A TRUE B FALSE
4 Which of the following IOS commands save the current running configuration to NVRAM A write memory B copy running-config startup-config C copy startup-config running-config D copy running-config ftp
5 Which of the following IOS commands assigns a domain name to a router A ip domain name B ip domain-name C ip name D domain-name
6 Which command allows EIGRP to load balance over unequal paths A maximum-path B ip eigrp load-balance C variance D ip eigrp variance E none of the above
7 What are true features of CDP A to show the IP address of a connected device B to obtain VLAN information from the connected device C to show the hostname and equipment type on a connection D for automatic network failover E to verify layer-2 connectivity
8 What is/are the IEEE standard for spanning tree protocol A 802.1d B 802.1q C 802.10 D 802.1w E 802.3u
9 Which of the following are designed for Frame Relay congestion notification A LMI B ILMI C BECN D UNI E FECN
10 Which access list will deny DNS A access-list 88 deny ip any any 55 B access-list 99 deny tcp any any eq 53 C access-list 102 deny tcp any any eq 53 D access-list 103 deny udp any any eq 53 E access-list 103 deny ip any host eq 21
11 Where is the router running configuration stored A NVRAM B RAM C FLASH D ROM
12 When applied to an interface an access list defaults to _________ if no direction is specified A inbound B outbound C disabled
13 Which of the following protocols are not routable A NetBEUI B SNA C IP D IPX E LAT F Appletalk
14 Cisco routers use a standard version of HDLC on the serial interfaces A TRUE B FALSE
15 Which layer of the OSI model does logical route path selection belong to A Layer 2 (Data) B Layer 3 (Network) C Layer 4 (Transport) D Layer 5 (Session)
16 What layer of the OSI model do WAN technologies operate A Layer 2 B Layer 5 C Layer 1 D Layer 6 E Layer 3 F Layer 4
17 Ports/Interfaces on a switch will default to what VLAN A VLAN 1 B no VLAN C disabled
18 The _____________ hold a 16 bit value that is used to decide how the router will boot A command-register B config-register C startup-register D boot-register
18 What is the range of class C addressing A 128.1.0.0 to 191.255.255.255 B 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.0 C 192.255.255.255 to 224.0.0.0 D 172.0.0.0 to 223.0.0.0
19 Which protocol uses TCP/IP port 443 A HTML B FTP C SSH D SMTP E HTTPS F HTTP
20 CDP packets are sent to neighbors every A 30 seconds B 60 seconds C 90 seconds D 5 minutes
21 The mask of 255.255.255.248 is the same as the binary A 11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000 B 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 C 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100001 D 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111100
22 Which are used for flow control A Cut-Through B Windowing C Fast Switching D Store and Foreward D Congestion control
23 The network mask of 255.255.252.0 can be displayed as A 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000 B /24 C /26 D /22 E /23
24 TCP uses which of the following for reliability A Segmentation B Flow Control C Acknowledgements D Sequencing
25 What IOS command assigns an access list to VTY interfaces A access-list B access-class C access-group D access-enable
26 At default, the syslog messages are sent to A syslog server B console port C auxilary port D terminal E VTY interfaces
27 A route is learned by a site router from several sources. Which route is the preferred source A RIPv2 B EIGRP C OSPF D default route
28 What layer of the OSI model does CDP operate A Layer 2 (Data) B Layer 3 (Network) C Layer 4 (transport) D Layer 5 (Session)
29 What switching mode/method provides checking of the FCS in the Ethernet trailer A Cut Through B Store and Forward C Fragment Free D none of the above
30 What command could be used to verify the cabling and clocking on a serial link A show interface serial0/0 B show controller serial1/0 C show interface ethernet3/0 D show interface trunk E show mars-bar
31 What is the IOS command to copy a new IOS into flash A copy net flash B copy tftp flash C copy nvram flash D copy flash filename
32 The 2 byte Frame Relay protocol type-frame has an RFC standard of A 1700 B 793 C 1490 D 0349 E 1749
33 What commpression type is supported on a VIP or compression service adapter A MPPC B STAC C FRF.9 D Predictor E none of the above
34 How many valid host addresses can be allocated with a mask of 255.255.255.248 A 2 B 4 C 8 D 6 E 7
35 Which command will allow you to determine the router within the path of an unreachable host A ping B show ip interface brief C show ip route D trace E telnet
36 What is the valid access-list number range for an extended ip access list A 0 - 99 B 100 - 199 C 99 - 200 D 99 - 199 E 200 - 299
37 What congestion notification mechanism would notify the sending station that congestion exists A FECN B LMI C BECN D ILMI E DLCI
38 VTP configuration messages are flooded through the network every A 60 seconds B 180 seconds C 240 seconds D 5 minutes E only when a change is detected
39 Which of the following switches would be elected as the default root for VLAN1 (assume all switches fully meshed) A none B SW1 priority 32768 mac 0003.e334.d9c0 C SW2 priority 42326 mac 0003.e334.d640 D SW3 priority 42326 mac 0003.e334.d650 E SW4 priority 32768 mac 0003.e334.e770
40 Which field is found in IEEE Ethernet and not in Ethernet version 2 A type B length C acknowledge
41 What value is the TTL field in an IP packet to causes a discard A 255 B 64 C 0 D 1
42 What is the problem with the following configuration extracts router1# interface serial0/0 ip address 10.10.1.1 255.255.255.252 clock rate 4000000 router2# interface serial0/1 ip address 10.10.2.2 255.255.255.252 A incorrect interface - matach B incorrect cabling C wrong clock speed D missing clock statement on router#2 E incorrect ip address - match
43 What OSI model layer does NetBIOS belong A Layer 2 (Data) B Layer 3 (Network) C Layer 4 (Transport) D Layer 5 (Session) E Layer 6 (Presentation)
44 What is the permitted value range for a DLCI A 0 - 1024 B 0 - 1023 C 1 - 64 D 5 - 1024 E 1 - 128
45 What feature in PPP is used to check for a looped circuit A LQM B Magic Numbers C PAP D CHAP
46 What version of the Cisco IOS first supported LMI autosense A 10.9 B 11.0 C 11.2 D 11.8 E 12.0
47 What is the default for split horizon on a serial interface not configured for point to point A enabled B disabled
48 What is the update interval for IGRP A 90 seconds B 60 seconds C 30 seconds D 5 seconds
49 What is the default encapsulation for a Cisco 2800 serial interface A PPP B HDLC C Frame-Relay D none
50 Which lines of configuration will correct the following problem. The following message is recieved when telneting into a 1800 router Password required, but none set Connection to host lost.
A line con 0, login B line con 0, login, password cisco C line vty 0 4, login, password cisco D line vty, login, enable password cisco E password cisco F enable password cisco
51 What protocol is used to find a station's mac address, given the stations IP address A IARP B RARP C ARP D LMI
52 What type of access list would permit more than 99 standard access list to be created A protected B advanced C named D none of the above
53 Which of the following is not true A A VTP server without a configured domain name will accept the domain name from a VTP advertisement B A VTP client can create, modify and delete VTP messages C In VTP transparent mode, a switch can modify its own VLAN configuration D VTP messages are flooded through the network every 5 minutes
54 What information can not be supplied by CDP A neighbor memory B neighbor platform C neighbor address D neighbor identifier
55 Given the station address and mask 165.140.21.17/22, what is the broadcast address A 165.140.21.255 B 165.140.23.255 C 165.140.20.255 D 165.140.24.255
56 Which of the following routing protocols support VLSM A OSPF B IGRP C RIP version 1 D RIP version 2 E EIGRP
57 What command on a Catalyst switch would display the mac address of the root bridge for VLAN 623 A show bridge 623 B show span C show spanning-tree vlan 623 D show span 623
58 What is the default administration distance value for EIGRP A 60 B 90 C 120 D 140
59 Which router command assigns ethernet sub-interface to VLAN 7 using ISL A set vlan 7 ethernet B encapsulation isl 7 C enable isl 7 D ethernet enable isl 7
60 Which are advantages of using default routes A keep routing tables small B need large cpu resource C allow connectivity to routes not held in local routing tables D automatically establich routes E direct traffic from the Internet
61 Which of the following do not share the same subnet as device 165.140.220.6 255.255.192.0 A 165.140.248.17/18 B 165.140.252.12/18 C 165.140.199.44/18 D 165.140.166.22/18 E 165.140.190.120/18
62 What is the command to enable EIGRP on a router A enable ip eigrp B router eigrp C enable eigrp routing D set ip eigrp
63 When two switches in the same VTP domain (both set in server mode) have different VLAN configurations A spanning tree blocks the conflicting links B both switches disable any conflicting port configurations C the VTP server with the highest value configuration register overwrites the other switch configuration D none of the above
64 What is the function of VLAN pruning A to synchronise VTP messages B to minimise traffic on trunks by removing traffic destined for VLANs that have been long inactive on the destination switches C to minimise traffic on trunks by removing traffic destined for VLANs that are not configured on the destination switches D none of the above
65 What is the default equal-cost paths that IGRP will load balance over A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5
66 When displaying routes from a show ip route command, what character is used to show that the route came from an EIGRP routing update A R B I C E D D
66 A unicast frame received by a switch with a destination address that is not in the switch's address table, will be A flooded out of every port B flooded out of every port except the port on which it was received C dropped D sent back to sender as unreachable
67 Which method of tagging extends the ethernet frame A ISL B 802.1w C 802.1s D 802.1q
68 Which ICMP message does the trace command rely on A protocol unreachable B echo C destination unreachable D time exceeded E host unreachable
69 How many connecting pins are defined by the ITU V.35 specification A 35 B 25 C 34 D 28 E 18
70 When a gateway becomes congested it sends a ______ to let the sending station know to slow down A destination unreachable B source quench C redirect D none of the above
71 What is the default metric for RIP version 2 A hops B ticks C delay D MTU E bandwidth
72 What is the max size of a default Ethernet data frame A 1500 bits B 48 Bytes C 80 Bytes D 1500 Bytes
73 What is the value of the DSAP/SSAP to indicate SNAP protocol A 0 B FF C AA D 08 E 0E
74 Given a station address and mask of 134.26.17.11/23, what is the network and broadcast addresses A 134.26.17.0 B 134.26.17.255 C 134.26.16.0 D 134.26.16.255 E 134.26.0.0
75 What layer of the OSI model does SNMP belog to A Layer 2 (Data) B Layer 3 (Network) C Layer 5 (Session) D Layer 7 (Application)
76 Which of the following are assigned in RFC 1918 as private IP addresses A 10.0.1.2 B 172.17.23.2 C 192.168.23.2 D 127.0.0.1 E 165.140.20.5
77 The NAT inside-global address is defined as A address of host in the private network, normally using a private address B Internet address of host viewed from outside a private network C Internet address of global host attached to the Internet D none of the above
78 Which of the following are FTP commands A put B mget C write D save E get
79 Telnet to a Cisco router that has no password configured is A not possible, connection is rejected B a security risk C possible, but only in Switzerland d possible only in monitor mode
80 A transparent bridge A operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model B operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model C forwards all multicast frames D allows frame/packet fragmentation E connects different protocol segments together
81 CSMA/CD first step in transmitting data is A send a jam signal to free the link B wait a random time C listen to detect frames D send the frame
82 Which authentication method supports MD5 encryption A PAP B CHAP C enhanced PAP D none of the above
83 Which of the following is untrue regarding full-duplex ethernet A collisions do not occur B provides for only two stations to be directly connected C available bandwidth is double that of half-duplex D half-duplex devices can not be connected to full-duplex devices
84 Which spanning tree timer must expire before determining the topology has changed A forward delay B max age C hello D none of the above
85 Which of the following statements are untrue regarding CIDR A allows ISP to carry one default route to all destinations B allows ISP to reduce the routes carried in the routing tables C treats IP addresses as classless D makes use of address aggregation 86 Which of the following are TRUE regarding router on a stick routing between VLANS A a router on a stick topology must use sub-interfaces and trunking B traffic sent to each VLAN is tagged at layer-3 C traffic sent to each VLAN is tagged at layer-2 D static routing could be used to route between the VLANs E an IGP must be used by the router for dynamic routing 87 Which of the following are TRUE regarding distance vector routing protocols A they use split horizon for loop prevention B they send LSA to all their neighbours C they use a holddown timer when links go down D they use hop-count to determine best routes E they use bandwidth and delay to determine best routes 88 Given the network - two VLANs on a switch connected to a router on a stick with the router connected to an ISP for Internet use. Which of these statements are TRUE A the router could use a static route and NAT to connect to the ISP B the router will need sub-interfaces to route to the VLANs C the switch will need EtherChannel, trunking and PAGP D the switch will need trunking and VTP E the router will use an IGP such as OSPF to route between the VLANs and the ISP 89 A small three router network is using OSPF to route between the six company networks - two networks on each router. All routers are connected to a single FastEthernet backbone. Which statements are TRUE A If the DR fails, but the BDR will become the new DR and the other router will become the BDR only after a reload B The routers will all send OSPF hello's every 10 seconds to all other routers C The routers will send OSPF hello's every 10 seconds to the DR and BDR routers only D The routers will all send OSPF hello's every 5 seconds to all other routers and LSA updates to DR and BDRs E All the routers will have the same link state database F A static route with AD value 100 will be used rather than an OSPF route for the same network 90 Which of the following are TRUE regarding spanning tree protocol A Several switches can be deployed using RSTP and STP in the same networks B IEEE 802.1w has states forwarding, blocking, learning C IEEE 802.1D has states listening learning, forwarding, blocking D RSTP FastEthernet switch port connected to another RSTP GigabitEthernet switchport will have port cost 4 E STP FastEthernet switch port connected to another STP GigabitEthernet switchport will have cost 19
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